Multiple Choice Questions

1. Traditionally, the category of training emphasized by the most companies is:
a. basic and advanced skills.
b. orientation.
c. safety.
d. legally-mandated.
2. Which of the following is not one of the job-related competencies critical for successful job
performance?
a. Innovation
b. Knowledge
c. Skills
d. Behaviors
3. ______________ is linked to strategic goals and objectives and benchmarks its training
programs against those of other companies.
a. Total Quality Management training
b. Continuous learning
c. High-leverage training
d. Six Sigma training
4. ______________ involve(s) measuring progress with data, designing methods and processes to
meet internal and external customers, and promoting cooperation with vendors, suppliers and
customers.
a. ISO 9000
b. TQM
c. Quality Circles
d. ISO 100-15
5. Which of the following categories in the Malcolm Baldrige Award is most closely related to
training and development?
a. Strategic planning
b. Measurement, analysis and knowledge management
c. Work force focus
d. Customer and market focus
6. _____________ is a set of standards regarding how to establish quality standards and how to
document work processes.
a. Six Sigma
b. TQM
c. The Malcolm Baldrige award
d. ISO 9000
7. _____________ are teams separated by time, culture, organizational boundaries and that rely on
technology.
a. Quality circles
b. High performance work teams
c. Virtual teams
d. Six Sigma teams
8. According to the 2004 ASTD Competency Model, which of the following is not one of the four
roles of a training professional?
a. Change agent
b. Project manager
c. Business partner
d. Professional specialist
9. According to Noe, the component(s) of human capital that creates the greatest value for
business is:
a. cognitive knowledge and advanced skills.
b. system understanding and self-motivated creativity.
c. conscientiousness and cognitive knowledge.
d. self-motivated creativity.
10. ______________ may specify customers served and values received by customers.
a. Vision
b. Values
c. Mission
d. Goals Final Examination
11. In the strategic training and development process, all except ______________ are examples of metrics showing the value of training.
a. improved quality
b. employee satisfaction
c. reduced turnover
d. increased participation in training programs
12. The ______________ duties of traditional managers and managers of high-performance work
teams are most similar.
a. managing individual performance and creating and maintaining trust
b. facilitating decision-making and managing group performance
c. plan and allocate resources and creating and maintaining trust
d. monitor the business environment and manage alignment
13. The type of training an organization offers and the resources provided are influenced by:
a. job analysis and human resource planning.
b. compensation and benefits.
c. staffing and human resource planning.
d. performance management and human resource planning.
14. Which of the following is not an advantage of centralized training?
a. The lowest cost training model
b. Drives a strong alignment with business strategy
c. Allows development of common metrics to assess quality
d. Elimination of course duplication and variation
15. The customer model approach to organization of a training department involves:
a. organizing a company to interface with customers.
b. asking customers what training employees need.
c. organizing the training department so that there is a training component for each
functional unit or division of the firm.
d. focusing training initiatives on customer service.
16. The customer model of training department organization:
a. involves customers delivering training.
b. requires trainers to report to two managers.
c. requires no training director or administrator.
d. requires trainers to understand a functional area of the company as well as
understanding instructional design.
17. Which one of the following management actions could least likely increase employees�
self-efficacy levels?
a. Letting employees know the purpose of the training programs
b. Providing as much information as possible about the training program and its purposes
prior to the actual training
c. Showing employees the training success of their peers who are now in similar jobs
d. Using off-site rather than on-site formal training programs
18. Which of the following is not an issue to determine whether training is the best solution?
a. Is the performance problem important?
b. Can employees demonstrate the correct behavior?
c. Were other solutions too expensive or unrealistic?
d. Are employees approaching retirement age?
19. In the process of determining if training is the best solution for a performance problem, you
discover employees were trained but rarely or never used the training content. This is an
example of a ______________ factor affecting performance and learning.
a. input
b. feedback
c. consequences
d. output
20. The first step in task analysis is to:
a. develop a preliminary list of tasks performed on the job.
b. interview all job incumbents.
c. select the job or jobs to be analyzed.
d. identify the KSA�s important for successful task performance.
21. The most relevant type of needs analysis for preparing training materials is:
a. organizational.
b. benchmarking.
c. person.
d. task.
22. All of the following are true for competency models except:
a. identify the differences across jobs, occupational groups or organizational levels.
b. focus on how work is done.
c. link competencies to an organization�s goals.
d. are particularly useful for generating requirements for employee selection.
23. The first step in developing a competency model is:
a. identifying jobs, positions and job families.
b. conducting business and strategy analysis.
c. selecting needs assessment strategy.
d. identifying effective and ineffective job performers.
24. All except ______________ is a way competency models are useful for training and
development.
a. identifying behaviors needed for effective job performance
b. facilitating succession planning for managerial candidates
c. providing guidelines for organizational analysis
d. providing a framework for coaching
25. In expectancy theory, ______________ is the perceived relationship between performance and
rewards.
a. valence
b. instrumentality
c. expectancy
d. equity
26. When an employee sees success in a training program as being able to perform better at their
job, the training program has high _____________ for them.
A. valence
B. expectancy
C. instrumentality
D. self-efficacy
27. When an employee sees success in a training program as leading to peer recognition, hard
work and a good chance of promotion, the training program has high _____________ for them.
a. expectancy.
b. valence.
c. instrumentality.
d. self-efficacy.
28. Self-efficacy is most similar to which of the following concepts?
a. Valence
b. Expectancy
c. Instrumentality
d. Social reinforcement
29. The simplest learning strategy is:
a. organizing.
b. working storage.
c. reinforcement.
d. rehearsal.
30. �Gratifying,� in the learning process described, refers to:
a. pleasing the trainer by mastering the skill or knowledge being trained.
b. retrieving information from long-term memory.
c. giving the trainer a positive evaluation.
d. feedback the learner receives as a result of using learning content.
31. Research on the influence of age on training found that _____________ had the largest
influence on training performance of trainees over 40 years of age.
a. self-paced training
b. teamwork and technology
c. structured material and frequent testing
d. use of texts versus computers
32. Specification of training objectives is important for all of the following uses except:
a. identification of training outcomes.
b. they are required by ASTD standards.
c. serve as training goals.
d. help trainees understand why they need training.
33. All but ________________ is a mode of knowledge sharing.
a. socialization
b. tacit
c. combination
d. externalization
34. ______________ refers to converting explicit knowledge to tacit knowledge.
a. Combination
b. Externalization
c. Internalization
d. Socialization
35. _______________ is personal knowledge based on individual experience and personal
communications through discussion and demonstrations.
a. Explicit
b. Implicit
c. Internalized
d. Tacit
36. Which of the following is not an example of a knowledge management method?
a. High fidelity simulations
b. After-action review
c. Communities of practice
d. Organizational intranet
37. ______________ refers to an individual who develops, implements, and links a knowledge/
learning culture with the company�s technology infrastructure?
a. Chief Technical Officer (CTO)
b. Chief Learning Officer (CLO)
c. Chief Training Dissemination Officer (CTDO)
d. Chief of Knowledge Transfer Officer (CKTO)
38. The purpose of having a CLO (chief learning officer) is:
a. to ensure trainers locate knowledge and distribute it.
b. to develop ways for team members to collaborate across different locations.
c. to develop, implement and link a knowledge culture with the companies technology
infrastructure.
d. to design training programs for managers.
39. Which of the following is a reason knowledge management systems fail?
a. Organizations do not adequately fund them.
b. The systems are not updated and become obsolete.
c. Coordination between the training and information technology departments is
inadequate.
d. Organizations do not adequately consider how to motivate employees to share
knowledge.
40. �Believability� refers to:
a. trainees� confidence in program effectiveness.
b. external validity.
c. internal validity.
d. a low level of contamination and deficiency.
41. Which of the following is not a threat to internal validity?
a. Characteristics of the company
b. Reaction to the pretest
c. Trainees who drop out of the study or leave the organization
d. Regression to the mean
42. An evaluation study of the effectiveness of a new software program was conducted using
volunteers with various characteristics. What is the greatest threat to validity?
a. Maturation
b. Mortality
c. Interaction of selection and training
d. Initial group differences
43. External validity refers to:
a. the generalizability of training results to other groups and situations.
b. face validity.
c. internal consistency.
d. whether performance outcomes can be attributed to a training program.
44. All of the following except use of ______________ are ways to minimize threats to validity in
evaluation studies.
a. pretests and posttests
b. comparison groups
c. random assignment
d. only standardized tests
45. If the trainee group and control group can be assumed to similar levels of knowledge, behavior
and results prior to training, the most efficient evaluation design is _______________.
a. posttest only
b. posttest only with comparison group
c. time series
d. Solomon four-group
46. _____________ is a time period in which participants no longer receive the training
intervention.
a. Regression
b. Extinction
c. Reversal
d. Mortality
47. The best training evaluation design to use for programs aimed at improving readily observable
outcomes such as accident rates, scrap rate and absences is _____________.
a. Solomon four-group
b. posttest only
c. pre-test only
d. time series
48. The Solomon four-group evaluation design:
a. allows only for the assessment of how much change has occurred, not whether we can
attribute it to the training.
b. combines the pretest/posttest comparison group and posttest only designs for the most
rigorous evaluation design.
c. does not reduce the threats to internal validity.
d. is used in nearly half of the companies that evaluate training.
49. All of the following except ______________ are characteristics of effective modeling.
a. key behaviors are clearly presented
b. each key behavior is repeated
c. a review of key behaviors is presented
d. models are similar in age to trainees
50. The predominant method of present modeling displays is:
a. role playing performed by the trainer.
b. computerized modeling.
c. videotape.
d. description in a training manual.
51. Which of the component of behavior modeling focuses on transfer?
a. Modeling display
b. Key behavior demonstration
c. Role play participation and practice
d. Application planning
52. The components of team learning are:
a. knowledge, attitude, and behavior.
b. skills, abilities, and beliefs.
c. summative, formative, evaluative.
d. proactive, reactive, reflective.
53. All of the following are strategies of team training except:
a. team leader.
b. orientation.
c. cross.
d. coordination.
54. The type of training that instructs the team in how to share information and decision making
responsibilities to maximize team performance is called:
a. team leader training.
b. cross training.
c. team training.
d. coordination training.
55. Six Sigma involves principles of:
a. action learning.
b. team training.
c. adventure learning.
d. business games.
56. For motor skills, behavior modeling has better transfer than:
a. simulations.
b. video.
c. O-J-T.
d. apprenticeships.
57. Which of the following training methods is best for transfer of learning?
a. Self-directed learning
b. Behavior modeling
c. Role playing
d. Business games
58. ____________ is not a central issue in developing effective online learning.
a. Transfer of training
b. Evaluation
c. Needs assessment
d. Design
59. Directly translating an instructor-led, face-to-face training program online is called:
a. asynchronous communication.
b. teleconferencing.
c. bandwidth.
d. repurposing.
60. All of the following are principles for designing e-learning except:
a. exercises are located in one, easily found location.
b. text is aligned closely to visuals.
c. key concepts are explained prior to the full process associated with the concepts.
d. exercises mimic the context of the job.
61. All of the following are true regarding blended learning except:
a. a significant problem is fast-changing technology.
b. it is less effective than face-to-face instruction for teaching information about ideas
and concepts.
c. learners react more favorably to classroom instruction.
d. a significant problem is insufficient management support and commitment.
62. Branching story, interactive spreadsheet and game-based are all examples of:
a. e-learning.
b. computer-based training.
c. simulations.
d. intelligent tutoring.
63. All of the following are true regarding simulations except:
a. trainees can use them on their desktop computer.
b. they are meaningful and emotionally engaging.
c. they can put trainees in situations that would be dangerous in the real world.
d. training times are longer than other methods.
64. Virtual reality:
a. has the disadvantage of lack of similarity to the work context.
b. effectiveness depends at least partly on the extent to which it has a high level of
presence.
c. is fun to use, but is not an effective training method.
d. is useful for addressing attitudinal outcomes.
65. PhotoSphere, Forterra and Second Life are examples of:
a. virtual worlds.
b. blended learning.
c. computer-based training.
d. E-learning.
66. Which of following is a disadvantage of virtual worlds?
a. It has no disadvantages.
b. It cannot be used to teach interpersonal skills.
c. Team training is not possible.
d. There is very little evidence to support its effectiveness.
67. Negative outcomes of job rotation include all except:
a. higher costs than other development methods.
b. a short-term perspective of problems and solutions.
c. motivation may suffer due to insufficient time in one position to receive a challenging
assignment.
d. reduced productivity in the rotating employee�s home department.
68. An effective job rotation system is characterized by all of the following except:
a. The system is used to develop skills as well as give employees� the experience needed
for managerial positions.
b. The system is linked with the company�s career management process.
c. The system is restricted to a limited number of key positions and employees within the
company.
d. The system ensures that employees understand the specific skills to be developed.
69. ______________ allows employees to take full-time, temporary operational roles at another
company.
a. A transfer
b. Employee exchange
c. Temporary assignment
d. An externship
70. All of the following are personality characteristics of people likely to seek a mentor and be
attractive as protégés except:
a. conscientiousness.
b. emotional stability.
c. high need for power.
d. ability to adapt to a situation.
71. _____________ is an experienced, productive senior employee who helps develop a less
experienced employee.
a. A mentor
b. A coach
c. A trainer
d. A protégé
72. The best formal mentoring programs:
a. carefully assign a mentor to a protégé without clouding the issue by seeking participant
input.
b. randomly assign mentors to protégés.
c. provide little structure to get in the way of natural mentoring processes.
d. have clearly articulated purpose and roles.
73. Coaching, protection, sponsorship and providing challenging assignments, exposure and
visibility are aspects of:
a. career support.
b. planning process.
c. lateral moves.
d. psychosocial support.
74. A peer or manager who works closely with an employee to motivate him or her, help him or her
develop skills, and provide reinforcement and feedback is known as a:
a. mentor.
b. coach.
c. protégé.
d. high-potential employee.
75. Characteristics of the best coaches are empathetic, supportive, practical, and _____________.
a. conscientious
b. same sex as protégé
c. self-confident
d. energetic
76. Key components of effective managing diversity programs include all except:
a. top management support.
b. improving relations with external stakeholders.
c. making work/life balance initiatives such as flextime available.
d. issuing company uniforms to all employees to foster a sense of company unity.
77. _____________ is a unique, comprehensive database and directory of occupational titles,
worker competencies, and job requirements and resources.
a. O*NET
b. HRIS
c. The Department of Labor Job Bank
d. The Workforce Investment Act data base
78. Which of the following is not an example of a training issue related to an internal
training need?
a. Melting the glass ceiling
b. The Workforce Investment Act
c. Basic skills training
d. Joint union-management programs
79. Basic skills programs:
a. should be high profile so trainees can publicly participate.
b. are not really needed in today�s companies.
c. should be based on the gap between current skill levels and desired skill level.
d. should be highly abstract and conceptual to challenge trainees.
80. _______________ is a major training and development issue facing companies today. It
involves issues such as how to move women and minorities into upper-level management
positions.
a. Affirmative Action
b. Succession planning
c. Lack of basic skills
d. Breaking the glass ceiling
81. All but one of the following is true of the glass ceiling. Name the exception.
a. The barrier may be due to a lack of access to training programs, developmental job
experiences and developmental relationships, such as mentoring.
b. Research has found significant gender differences in access to job experiences
involving transitions or creating change.
c. The barrier may be due to stereotypes that hinder the development of women and
minorities.
d. Research shows male managers have received more assignments involving high levels
of responsibility than female managers of similar ability and managerial level.
82. Succession planning involves all except which of the following?
a. Requires senior management to systematically conduct a review of leadership talent in
the company.
b. Assures that top-level management talent is available.
c. It identifies specific employee replacements for each managerial position within the
company.
d. It provides a set of developmental experiences that managers must complete to be
considered for top management positions.
83. The first step in the succession planning process is to:
a. develop the succession planning review.
b. determine how employee potential will be measured.
c. identify the employees who are included in the plan.
d. identify what positions are included in the plan.
84. Characteristics of the best coaches are empathetic, supportive, practical, and _____________.
a. conscientious
b. same sex as protégé
c. self-confident
d. energetic
85. The final step in the career management process is:
a. self-assessment.
b. goal setting.
c. reality check.
d. action planning.
86. An effective career management process includes all but one of the following features.
Name the exception.
a. Within some constraints, business units are able to customize the system for their own
purposes.
b. The system is not contaminated by other HR functions, such as performance
management, training, and recruiting systems.
c. The system is positioned as a response to a business need.
d. Employees and managers participate in development of the system.
87. Which of the following is not a manager�s role in career management?
a. Coaching
b. Requesting information from other company sources
c. Seeking challenge
d. Counseling
88. Which among the following individuals in an organization is responsible to generate options,
experiences, and relationships?
a. Referral agent
b. Coach
c. Appraiser
d. Advisor
89. All of the following are ways to evaluate career management systems except:
a. attitude surveys when improving morale as an objective.
b. reactions of employees and managers.
c. time to fill open positions.
d. reduction in cost of training programs.
90. Research shows that organizations ________________ operate more efficiently and have higher
retention rates than organizations without such plans.
a. with job sharing
b. providing hoteling
c. with flexible work schedules
d. telecommuting
91. Which of the following would best meet a need of many telecommuters?
a. Job sharing
b. Shift work
c. Compressed work week
d. Hoteling
92. The most challenging work option for organizations is:
a. job sharing.
b. telecommuting.
c. compressed work week.
d. hoteling.
93. Which of the following research findings regarding the effects of layoffs is not true?
a. Profits do not improve.
b. Commitment of remaining employees increases.
c. Effects on productivity are mixed.
d. The workload increases.
94. Attitudes of employees regarding the fairness of layoffs is affected by all except:
a. if they were asked to cut costs to avoid layoffs.
b. if advance notice was provided.
c. the amount of severance pay provided.
d. if factors used to determine layoffs were applied to both line and staff.
95. According to the AARP/Roper Report, _______________ percent of baby boomers plan to work
at least part time during their retirement.
a. 20
b. 40
c. 60
d. 80
96. Historically, _______________ of employees retire by the time they are _______________ years
old.
A. 80%, 70
B. 70%, 80
C. 50%, 65
D. 60%, 70
97. ________ refer to technology that organizes and applies the knowledge of human experts to
specific problems.
a. case studies and team training.
b. interactive video training.
c. expert systems.
d. podcasts and Wikis.
98. As companies make greater use of high performance work teams, training must provide
workers with skills in all areas except:
a. interpersonal skills.
b. quality.
c. customer-service.
d. cross-cultural skills.
99. Use of briefings, newsletters and webpages to keep employees informed of what is happening
in their organization is part of which step in the change process?
a. Communicate for buy-in.
b. Execute and create short-run wins.
c. Choose and announce action.
d. Identify the problem and create a sense of urgency.
100. _______________ is a complete review of critical processes and the redesign of those
processes to make them more efficient and able to deliver higher quality.
a. Benchmarking
b. Process evaluation
c. Reegineering
d. Change management

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